Really tiny idea #2: A Morposyntactical Quirk

Have definite plurals behave differently from indefinite plurals - which group like definite and indefinite singulars alike. The main difference I was thinking of was something like:

Definite plural nouns are never complements of prepositions, but instead take a weird construction along the lines of 'the men, shortfillermorpheme-of-them', giving something like

ar kibas = by a man
ar kibastə = by the man
ar kibasli = by (some) men
kibaslə, ŋar fwi = the men, ŋ-by them.(masc plur)

As for direct objects, the plural definites more often than other nouns - but not always - have a similar object pronoun present in their vicinity.

Often, the definite plural noun itself will be left-dislocated - probably even topicalized. Other topicalized nouns pull their preposition with them. In part this is the result of a somewhat unclear verbal congruence marking - so this strategy increases its distinctness from the indefinite plural nouns.